EMT Practice Test

1. Question Content...

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Question1: Which of the following is a valid drawback of independent testing? 1 credit

Question2: During the development of a software change for a system, the developer makes a mistake in his work, which leads to a fault in the code. Unfortunately the fault is not found by software testing and is released into live.
What is the definite consequence of this mistake?

Question3: A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide evidence of testing.
However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT an influencing factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit

Question4: When considering the roles of test leader and tester, which of the following tasks would NOT typically be performed by a tester?

Question5: For which of the following activities in the fundamental test process would an incident management tool be most useful?

Question6: A test management tool is most likely to integrate with which of the following tools?

Question7: In addition to risk, identify TWO other components of a testing strategy. 1 credit

Question8: An iPhone application identifies and counts all purchases of a particular product from a shopping website. The application incorrectly counts purchase attempts by including both failed attempts, and also those where the purchase was terminated by the user before completion. Testing has identified that the problem was located in the 'purchase identification' module, where the first stage in the purchasing process was counted, rather than a successful confirmed purchase.
Which of the following statements correctly identifies what has happened? [K2]

Question9: Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'

Question10: Which of the following statements best characterises maintenance testing? [K2]

Question11: Independent Verification & Validation is:

Question12: Boundary value testing:

Question13: In a review meeting a moderator is a person who:

Question14: Why is measurement of code coverage Important?

Question15: Which of the following best describes the Black-box technique?

Question16: Which of the following would achieve the HIGHEST level of testing independence for a project's test level?

Question17: What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing..?

Question18: Which of the following is a defect that is more likely to be found by a static analysis tool than by other testing techniques?

Question19: What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?

Question20: From the following list, which of the following apply to experience-based techniques? [K2] a. Test cases are derived from a model of the problem to be solved or the software b. Test cases are derived from the knowledge of the testers
c. The knowledge of testers, developers and users is used to drive testing d. The internal structure of the code is used to derive test cases

Question21: A system is designed to accept values of examination marks as follows:
Fail: 0-39 inclusive
Pass: 40-59 inclusive
Merit: 60-79 inclusive
Distinction: 80-100 inclusive
In which of the following sets of values are all values in different equivalence partitions?

Question22: Which of the following would you expect to see in the master test plan? 1 credit

Question23: Which of the following characteristics of good testing apply to any software development life cycle model?

Question24: During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?

Question25: Risks should be constantly reviewed. Given the current situation, which one of the following factors is most likely to lead to a revised view of product risk? 3 credits

Question26: Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase

Question27: The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:

Question28: Which of the following correctly states a limitation in the use of static analysis tools? [K1]

Question29: What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing a testing forworld wide web sites ..?

Question30: Which TWO of the review types below are the BEST fitted (most adequate) options to choose for reviewing safety critical components in a software project? Select 2 options.

Question31: The purpose of exit criteria is:

Question32: Test objectives for systems testing of a safety critical system include completion of all outstanding defect correction. Regression testing is required following defect correction at all test levels. Which TWO of the following metrics would be MOST suitable for determining whether the test objective has been met? [K2]
a. Regression tests run and passed in systems testing
b. Incidents closed in systems testing
c. Planned tests run and passed in system testing
d. Planned tests run and passed at all levels of testing
e. Incidents raised and closed at all levels of testing

Question33: Which of the following statements is the MOST valid goal for a test team?

Question34: Which of the following test cases will ensure that the statement 'Print 'Hold'' is exercised?
[K3]
Refer to the exhibit

Question35: Which of the following are the typical defects found by static analysis tools?
a. Variables that are never used.
b. Security vulnerabilities.
c. Poor performance.
d. Unreachable code.
e. Business processes not followed.

Question36: What is a test condition?

Question37: How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the following program fragment?
Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : -if (Condition 1)then statement 1else statement 2if (Condition 2)then statement 3

Question38: Evaluate the status of the project against the defined exit criteria. Which of the following options shows the correct status? 2 credits

Question39: A number of options have been suggested for the level of independence to be employed for the testing on the next project, and are shown below.
i. External test specialists perform non-functional testing.
ii. Testing is outsourced.
iii. Testing is carried out by the developer.
iv. A separate test team carries out the testing.
v. Testing is performed by the business.
vi. Testing is performed by a different developer.
Which of the following orders the above in a correct order of independence? 1 credit

Question40: Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part of which phase:

Question41: Which of the following options explain why it is often beneficial to have an independent test function in an organisation?

Question42: The business has asked for a weekly progress report. Which of the following would be appropriate as a measure of test coverage? 2 credits

Question43: Which one of the following estimation approaches is appropriate at this stage of the project? 2 credits

Question44: What is static analysis?

Question45: Which of the following test organizations has the highest level of independence?

Question46: Refer to the exhibit
The following test cases need to be run, but time is limited, and it is possible that not all will be completed before the end of the test window

The first activity is to run any re-tests, followed by the regression test script. Users have supplied their priority order to tests.
Which of the following gives an appropriate test execution schedule, taking account of the prioritisation and other constraints? [K3]

Question47: Which of the following would be appropriate test objectives for user acceptance testing of the first release of a new software product aimed at a general market and built using Agile methods? [K2]
a. To identify as many defects as possible
b. To maximise code coverage
c. To ensure the product works as expected
d. To assess the overall quality of the product
e. To determine the reliability of the product

Question48: The cost of fixing a fault:

Question49: Which of the following are the most important factors to be taken into account when selecting test techniques?
(i) Tools available.
(ii) Regulatory standards.
(iii) Experience of the development team.
(iv) Knowledge of the test team.
The need to maintain levels of capability in each technique.

Question50: Which of the following BEST defines static techniques? [K1]

Question51: Which of the following would typically be identified using static analysis by tools? [K1]

Question52: "How much testing is enough?"

Question53: Which of the following statements are TRUE?
A: Regression testing and acceptance testing are the same.
B: Regression tests show if all defects have been resolved.
C: Regression tests are typically well-suited for test automation.
D: Regression tests are performed to find out if code changes have introduced or uncovered defects.
E: Regression tests should be performed in integration testing.

Question54: Which of the following comparisons of component testing and system testing are TRUE?

Question55: IEEE 1028 also defines "management review" as a type of review. What is the main purpose of a management review? 1 credit

Question56: Which list of levels of tester independence is in the correct order, starting with the most independent first?

Question57: Which TWO of the following test tools would be classified as test execution tools? [K2] a. Test data preparation tools
b. Test harness
c. Review tools
d. Test comparators
e. Configuration management tools

Question58: What is the purpose of exit criteria?

Question59: Which of the following statements BEST describes one of the seven key principles of software testing?

Question60: A new testing tool has been selected for an organisation and a pilot project has successfully completed. The next step is to deploy the tool within the organization.
What is a key success factor in tool deployment?

Question61: Regarding the process described above, what is the most important recommendation you would make using IEEE 1044 as a guide? 2 credits

Question62: Failure is _________

Question63: Which of the following is the odd one out..?

Question64: Which of the following is a valid objective of testing? [K1]

Question65: A new system is about to be developed. Which of the following functions has the highest level of risk?

Question66: Which of the following is the main purpose of the component build and integration strategy?

Question67: The purpose of requirement phase is:

Question68: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called..?

Question69: Which of the following is a consideration when deploying test execution tools? [K1]

Question70: During which stage of the fundamental test process is the testability of requirements evaluated?

Question71: Comparing TMMi and TPI, which is not a valid reason for choosing either TPI or TMMi? 2 credits

Question72: Which of the following statements describes a key principle of software testing?

Question73: Which pair of definitions is correct?

Question74: In general which part of the testing activity is most difficult to estimate? 1 credit

Question75: You have been asked to write a testing strategy for the company. Which statement best explains how risk can be addressed within the testing strategy? 1 credit

Question76: Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software Testing process..?

Question77: During test process improvement it is recommended to use standards where possible.
Standards originate from various sources and they cover different subjects in relation to testing Pick TWO sources of software standards, useful to software testing from the ones mentioned below. 1 credit

Question78: Dynamic Analysis Tools are used to:

Question79: Consider the following pseudo code:
1 . Begin
2 . Input X, Y
3 . If X > Y
4 . __Print (X, 'is greater than', Y)
5 . Else
6 . __Print (Y, is greater than or equal to', X)
7 . EndIf
8 . End
What is the minimum number of test cases required to guarantee both 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage?

Question80: Hand over of Testware is a part of which Phase:

Question81: Which of the following pairs of test tools are likely to be most useful during the test analysis and design stage of the fundamental test process?
(i) Test execution tool
(ii) Test data preparation tool
(iii) Test management tool
(iv) Requirements management tool

Question82: Which from the following list are typically found to enable the review process to be successful? [K2]
a. Each review has clear defined objectives
b. The lower the number of defects, the better the review process
c. The right people for the review objective are involved
d. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement
e. Management are not involved in the process at all
f. Checklists should not be used, as these slow down the process
g. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively

Question83: Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are:

Question84: You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist. Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit

Question85: The Cambrian Pullman Express has special ticketing requirements represented by the partial decision table below.
Refer to the exhibit

Carol has a student railcard and is travelling on a Flexible Standard Class ticket. James has a senior railcard and is travelling on a super saver ticket. Which of the options represents the correct actions for these two test cases? [K3]

Question86: What benefits do static analysis tools have over test execution tools?

Question87: You are examining a document which gives the precise steps needed in order to execute a test.
What is the correct definition of this document?

Question88: Which of the following would be the most significant input to estimating the time to carry out the specified testing tasks? 3 credits

Question89: Tests are prioritized so that:

Question90: Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?

Question91: Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of testing?

Question92: Which statement is most true?

Question93: Which of these are objectives for software testing?

Question94: Which of the following are valid reasons for adopting a different life cycle (from the V model), for increments after the first year? 2 credits
i. We do not have a clear understanding of the requirements from a customer perspective.
ii. We see the risk of delivering requested functionality late as being higher than the risk of delivering a lower quality product.
iii. We do not have a budget for additional regression testing which is needed to ensure that existing functionality is not compromised by future iterations.
iv. The company test strategy does not fit well within the V life cycle model.

Question95: Fault Masking is:

Question96: Why might a RAD approach be a better option for the test manager rather than a sequential development? 2 credits

Question97: Which of the following is most likely to be performed by developers?

Question98: Typically, exit criteria may consist of:

Question99: How does software testing contribute to the quality of delivered software? [K2]

Question100: Which of the following does NOT represent one of the three triggers for maintenance testing an operational system?

Question101: Which of the following accurately defines the integration testing test level? [K2]

Question102: Pick the best definition of quality:

Question103: Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting back on their status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1 credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time

Question104: Which of the following type of defect would NOT be typically found by using a static analysis tool?

Question105: You are considering involving users during test execution. In general, what is the main reason for involving users during test execution? 1 credit

Question106: Test script TransVal 3.1 tests transaction validation via screen TRN 003B. According to the specification (PID ver 1.3 10b iv) the validation screen should not accept future dated transactions. Test script TransVal 3.1 passes. Test script eod 1.4 tests end of day processing and is run after the execution of TransVal 3.1 using data entered during that test
Which of the following is the BEST detail on an incident report? [K3]

Question107: Which of the following activities is appropriate to the test planning stage?

Question108: The test improvement project will take place in an organization developing a safety-critical avionics application. Which one of the following standards do you believe would be most appropriate to take into account for compliance during your assignment? 1 credit

Question109: As part of the test strategy, entry and exit criteria will be defined for each test level. Which is NOT a valid reason for using entry and exit criteria? 1 credit

Question110: What type of test design technique is the most effective in testing screen-dialog flows?

Question111: What is the main reason for using a pilot project to introduce a testing tool into an organization? [K1]

Question112: Which of the following processes ensures that all items of testware are identified, version controlled, tracked for changes, so that traceability can be maintained throughout the test process?

Question113: Continuing with the Scenario described in the previous question, which of the following topics would you need to address in detail in the master test plan? 3 credits

Question114: Why is independent testing important? [K1]

Question115: A top-down development strategy affects which level of testing most?

Question116: A system requirement states that up to 100 users should be able to carry out a transaction, with responses returned within 5 seconds.
What type of non-functional testing would you carry out to verify these requirements?

Question117:
In the above State Table, which of the following represents an invalid transition?

Question118: Incidents would not be raised against

Question119: Which of the following BEST describes the relationship between test planning and test execution? [K2]

Question120: Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:

Question121: Which of the following is a white-box test technique?

Question122: According to the ISTQB Glossary, regression testing is required for what purpose?

Question123: Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase:

Question124: Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model? 1 credit

Question125: Which of the following characteristics is most likely to promote effective software testing?
[K1]

Question126: The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing approach are:

Question127: Which of the following is a valid reason for writing test cases based on experience and intuition? [K1]

Question128: What factors should be considered to determine whether enough testing has been performed?
(i)The exit criteria.
(ii)The budget.
(iii)How big the test team is.
(iv)The product's risk profile.
(v)How good the testing tools are.
(vi)Sufficient details of the system status to allow decisions

Question129: Which of the following are aids to good communication, and which hinder it?
i. Try to understand how the other person feels.
ii. Communicate personal feelings, concentrating upon individuals.
iii. Confirm the other person has understood what you have said and vice versa.
iv. Emphasize the common goal of better quality.
v. Each discussion is a battle to be won.

Question130: A test case starts at S1 and triggers 4 events in sequence: E1, E4, E5, E7. What will be the finishing state and the output(s) from the test case? [K3]
Refer to the exhibit

Question131: As a result of the RAD based development approach, the test manager has decided to change the risk mitigation approach. Which test technique might be most appropriate to use? 2 credits

Question132: An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004. The boundary values for testing this field are:

Question133: Which is the best definition of complete testing..?

Question134: Which of the following is a role of a formal review? [K1]

Question135: A live defect has been found where a code component fails to release memory after it has finished using it.
Which of the following tools would have been the MOST effective at detecting this defect prior to live implementation?

Question136: What other details should be included in the following incident report when it is first submitted?
Date of Issue: 23/11/05
Severity: P1
Build: Version15.6
Details: Expected field to be limited to 15 chars, able to enter 27

Question137: What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing..?

Question138: Which of the following statements about software development models is most accurate?
[K1]

Question139: Testers are often seen as the bearer of unwanted news regarding defects. What are effective ways to improve the communication and relationship between testers and others?
a)Communicate factual information in a constructive way.
b)Try to understand how the other person feels and why they react the way they do.
c)Always outsource testing activities.
d)Never record information that could be used to apportion blame to an individual or team.

Question140: Testing effort can depend on a number of factors, which one of following is MOST likely to impact the amount of effort required?

Question141: A client-server system for a web development must support a minimum of 200 enquiries per hour. In peak times, it must be available 24 hours x 7 days due to the critical nature of the application, and must have a response time lower than 20 seconds during peak loads.
Which of the following set of test types would be most appropriate to verify the non- functional requirements expressed in this statement?

Question142: Which of the following statements about risks is most accurate?

Question143: Which of the following metrics could be used to monitor progress along with test preparation and execution? [K1]

Question144: Which of the following statements about use-case testing are most accurate?
(i)In a use-case diagram an actor represents a type of user.
(ii)Use-cases are the most common test basis for unit testing.
(iii)A use-case describes interactions between actors.
(iv)An actor is always a human user that interacts with the system.
(v)Test cases can be based on use-case scenarios.
(vi)Use-case testing will often identify gaps not found by testing individual components.

Question145: Which of the following defines the expected result of a test?

Question146: The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage is required on exit from component testing. [K4] The following test cases have been run:
Test Case 1 covering path P,Q,R,U
Test Case 2 covering path P,Q,S,V
Test Case 3 covering path P,Q,S,W,X
Test case 4 covering path P,Q,S,W,Y
Refer to the exhibit

Question147: A test assessment has been carried out using the selected model as a reference framework. A number of recommendations have been identified and you are asked to prioritize them. Based on your knowledge of the project, you are expecting severe resistance to change. Which of the following would be the most important selection criterion for defining the priority of the recommendations? 2 credits

Question148: A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:

Question149: Which of the following is a structure-based (white-box) technique?

Question150: Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]

Question151: Which of the following are valid justifications for developers testing their own code during unit testing?
(i) Their lack of independence is mitigated by independent testing during system and acceptance testing.
(ii) A person with a good understanding of the code can find more defects more quickly using white-box techniques.
(iii) Developers have a better understanding of the requirements than testers.
(iv) Testers write unnecessary incident reports because they find minor differences between the way in which the system behaves and the way in which it is specified to work.

Question152: Which statement correctly describes the public and profession aspects of the code of ethics?

Question153: Which of the following is correct?
Debugging is:

Question154: You have been asked to improve the way test automation tools are being used in your company.
Which one of the following is the BEST approach?

Question155: Tools like change Man, Clear case are used as..?

Question156: A booking system for a city bus service prices its fares according to the time of travel:
* Peak-time tariff starts at 0600 and finishes at 1000 am
* Off-peak tariff applies during all other times of service
* The bus service does not operate between 2300 and the start of the next day's peak service
Note that all times mentioned are inclusive.
When applying the equivalence partitioning test design technique, which of the following options, shows test case inputs that each fall into a different equivalence partition?

Question157: The development manager is managing the review of the responses received from bidders, and has asked the in-house test manager to provide a review checklist for the test management aspects of the responses. Which of the following checkpoints would be appropriate? 2 credits

Question158: Acceptance test cases are based on what?

Question159: When an organization considers the use of testing tools, they should:

Question160: Which of the following are most characteristic of structure-based testing?
(i) Information about how the software is constructed is used to derive test cases.
(ii) Statement coverage and/or decision coverage can be measured for existing test cases.
(iii) The knowledge and experience of people are used to derive test cases.
(iv) Test cases are derived from a model or specification of the system.

Question161: Which one of the following roles is typically used in a review?

Question162: What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:

Question163: Which of the following statements contains a valuable objective for a test team?

Question164: Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit

Question165: Which of the following is true of iterative development?

Question166: Which of the following could be a reason for a failure?
1) Testing fault
2 ) Software fault
3 ) Design fault
4 ) Environment Fault
5 ) Documentation Fault

Question167: Under which of the following circumstances is maintenance testing required? [K1]

Question168: One of the roles in a review is that of moderator, which of the following best describes this role?

Question169: Relying only on the information provided in the scenario, select the TWO items and/or features for which sufficient information is available to proceed with test design. 2 credits

Question170: What can a risk-based approach to testing provide?

Question171:
The decision table above reflects a golf club's pricing structure for green fees and buggy/cart hire.
What is the expected result (actions) for each of the following two test cases (TC1 and TC2)?
* TC 1 - Paul is not a full member, is a Loyalty Card holder and requests to play 18 holes with a buggy/cart
* TC 2 - Cheryl is not at full member, doesn't have a Loyalty Card and requests to play 9 holes with a buggy/cart

Question172: What should be the MAIN objective during development testing?

Question173: Which of the following is in the correct order (typically)?

Question174: Which one of the following statements about testing techniques is TRUE?

Question175: Which of the following are examples of iterative development models?
(i) V-model
(ii) Rapid Application Development model
(iii) Waterfall model
(iv) Agile development model

Question176: Which type of review has the following main purposes:
discussing, making decisions, evaluating alternatives, finding defects, solving technical problems and checking conformance to specifications, plans, regulations, and standards?

Question177: Which of the following is a project risk mitigation step you might take as test manager? 1 credit

Question178: Which of the following product risks would be most effectively addressed just by static testing? 3 credits

Question179: Which is not a major task of test implementation and execution?

Question180: Consider the following pseudo code
1 . Begin
2 . Read Gender
3 . __Print "Dear"
4 . If Gender = 'female'
5 . Print ("Ms")
6 . Else
7 . __Print ( "Mr")
8 . Endif
9 . End
How many test cases are needed to achieve 100 per cent decision coverage?

Question181: Which statement below BEST describes non-functional testing?

Question182: What is the benefit of independent testing?

Question183: Faults found by users are due to..?

Question184: When assembling a test team to work on an enhancement to an existing system, which of the following has the highest level of test independence?

Question185: Which of the following, if observed in reviews and tests, would lead to problems (or conflict) within teams?

Question186: Functional and structural tests are alternative test types that may be used separately or together at which test level? [K1]

Question187: In addition to introducing the new team member, you have decided to raise motivation.
Which of the measures listed below would be the best measure to take in order to increase the motivation of the team? 2 credits

Question188: Which of the following statements are true?
(i) Defects are likely to be found earlier in the development process by using reviews rather than static analysis.
(ii) Walkthroughs require code but static analysis does not require code.
(iii) Informal reviews can be performed on code and specifications.
(iv) Dynamic techniques are generally used before static techniques.
(v) Dynamic techniques can only be used after code is ready to be executed.

Question189: Based on the information given in the scenario, identify how the team could be improved most effectively? 2 credits

Question190: In a system designed to work out the employee tax to be paid:
_ An employee has $4,000 of salary tax free.
_ The next $1,500 is taxed at 10%.
_ The next $28,000 after that is taxed at 22%.
_ Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
Which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?

Question191: When can functional and structural testing BOTH be applied?

Question192: Which of the following describes structure-based (white-box) test case design techniques?

Question193: What content would be in an incident report if that incident report was based on the IEEE
829 Standard for SoftwareTest Documentation?
(i)Identification of configuration items of the software or system.
(ii)Software or system lifecycle process in which the incident was observed.
(iii)Description of the anomaly to enable reproduction of the incident.
(iv)Number of occurrences of the incident.
(v)Classification of the cause of the incident for metrics and for reporting purposes.
Number of correct answers: 1

Question194: What are metrics NOT used for?